QUIZ 2025 UNPARALLELED CAS-004 ACCURATE ANSWERS & COMPTIA ADVANCED SECURITY PRACTITIONER (CASP+) EXAM AUTHORIZED EXAM DUMPS

Quiz 2025 Unparalleled CAS-004 Accurate Answers & CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) Exam Authorized Exam Dumps

Quiz 2025 Unparalleled CAS-004 Accurate Answers & CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) Exam Authorized Exam Dumps

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With the help of DumpsActual CompTIA CAS-004 dumps torrent, it is more time-saving effort to get CompTIA CAS-004 certification. In fact, you are not far from success. With DumpsActual CompTIA CAS-004 exam dumps, you must be IT talent. We provide you with free demo and pdf real questions and answers for further acquaintance. If you make use of our CompTIA CAS-004 Exam Dumps, we will accompany you on your road to success.

CompTIA CAS-004 (CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+)) Certification Exam is designed for IT professionals who are responsible for advanced-level security practices in their organizations. CAS-004 exam is a vendor-neutral certification that provides the necessary skills and knowledge to design, implement, and manage complex security solutions. CAS-004 Exam is intended for professionals who have a minimum of 10 years of experience in IT administration, including at least 5 years of hands-on technical security experience.

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The CASP+ certification exam is a vendor-neutral certification, which means that it is not tied to any specific technology or product. It is designed to test the skills of security professionals who work with a wide range of technologies, including hardware, software, and networks. CAS-004 Exam covers topics such as risk management, enterprise security architecture, research and analysis, and incident response. CAS-004 exam also includes performance-based questions that test the candidate's ability to solve real-world security problems.

CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) Exam Sample Questions (Q89-Q94):

NEW QUESTION # 89
The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) of a company that has highly sensitive corporate locations wants its security engineers to find a solution to growing concerns regarding mobile devices.
The CISO mandates the following requirements:
- The devices must be owned by the company for legal purposes.
- The device must be as fully functional as possible when off site.
- Corporate email must be maintained separately from personal email
- Employees must be able to install their own applications.
Which of the following will BEST meet the CISO's mandate? (Choose two.).

  • A. Disable the device's camera
  • B. Allow only corporate resources in a container.
  • C. Use an MDM to wipe the devices remotely
  • D. Deploy phones in a BYOD model
  • E. Block all sideloading of applications on devices
  • F. Use geofencmg on certain applications

Answer: B,F


NEW QUESTION # 90
While investigating a security event, an analyst finds evidence that a user opened an email attachment from an unknown source. Shortly after the user opened the attachment, a group of servers experienced a large amount of network and resource activity. Upon investigating the servers, the analyst discovers the servers were encrypted by ransomware that is demanding payment within 48 hours or all data will be destroyed. The company has no response plans for ransomware.
Which of the following is the NEXT step the analyst should take after reporting the incident to the management team?

  • A. Request that the affected servers be restored immediately.
  • B. Notify law enforcement.
  • C. Pay the ransom within 48 hours.
  • D. Isolate the servers to prevent the spread.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Isolating the servers is the best immediate action to take after reporting the incident to the management team, as it can limit the damage and contain the ransomware infection. Paying the ransom is not advisable, as it does not guarantee the recovery of the data and may encourage further attacks. Notifying law enforcement is a possible step, but not the next one after reporting. Requesting that the affected servers be restored immediately may not be feasible or effective, as it depends on the availability and integrity of backups, and it does not address the root cause of the attack. Verified Reference: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-ransomware-and-how-to-protect-yourself https://www.comptia.org/certifications/comptia-advanced-security-practitioner


NEW QUESTION # 91
A SOC analyst is reviewing malicious activity on an external, exposed web server. During the investigation, the analyst determines specific traffic is not being logged, and there is no visibility from the WAF for the web application.
Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?

  • A. The user agent client is not compatible with the WAF.
  • B. Old, vulnerable cipher suites are still being used.
  • C. A certificate on the WAF is expired.
  • D. HTTP traffic is not forwarding to HTTPS to decrypt.

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 92
A junior developer is informed about the impact of new malware on an Advanced RISC Machine (ARM) CPU, and the code must be fixed accordingly. Based on the debug, the malware is able to insert itself in another process memory location.
Which of the following technologies can the developer enable on the ARM architecture to prevent this type of malware?

  • A. Total memory encryption
  • B. Execute never
  • C. Virtual memory encryption
  • D. No-execute

Answer: B

Explanation:
Execute never is a technology that can be enabled on the ARM architecture to prevent malware from inserting itself in another process memory location and executing code. Execute never is a feature that allows each memory region to be tagged as not containing executable code by setting the execute never (XN) bit in the translation table entry. If the XN bit is set to 1, then any attempt to execute an instruction in that region results in a permission fault. If the XN bit is cleared to 0, then code can execute from that memory region. Execute never also prevents speculative instruction fetches from memory regions that are marked as non-executable, which can avoid undesirable side-effects or vulnerabilities. By enabling execute never, the developer can protect the process memory from being hijacked by malware. Verified References:
* https://developer.arm.com/documentation/ddi0360/f/memory-management-unit/memory-access-control/ex
* https://developer.arm.com/documentation/den0013/d/The-Memory-Management-Unit/Memory-attributes/
* https://developer.arm.com/documentation/ddi0406/c/System-Level-Architecture/Virtual-Memory-System-


NEW QUESTION # 93
A company is outsourcing to an MSSP that performs managed detection and response services. The MSSP requires a server to be placed inside the network as a log aggregate and allows remote access to MSSP analyst.
Critical devices send logs to the log aggregator, where data is stored for 12 months locally before being archived to a multitenant cloud. The data is then sent from the log aggregate to a public IP address in the MSSP datacenter for analysis.
A security engineer is concerned about the security of the solution and notes the following.
* The critical devise send cleartext logs to the aggregator.
* The log aggregator utilize full disk encryption.
* The log aggregator sends to the analysis server via port 80.
* MSSP analysis utilize an SSL VPN with MFA to access the log aggregator remotely.
* The data is compressed and encrypted prior to being achieved in the cloud.
Which of the following should be the engineer's GREATEST concern?

  • A. Encryption of data in transit
  • B. Hardware vulnerabilities introduced by the log aggregate server
  • C. Multinancy and data remnants in the cloud
  • D. Network bridging from a remote access VPN

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 94
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